this post was submitted on 30 Jan 2025
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[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 5 points 3 hours ago* (last edited 3 hours ago) (3 children)

The Soviet Union did more to stop the fascists than anyone else, and 27 million people in the Soviet Union were killed in the fight.

[–] zloubida@lemmy.world 7 points 3 hours ago (2 children)

Yeah, but that's after they made an alliance with Nazi Germany. An alliance Germany broke, not the USSR.

[–] humanspiral@lemmy.ca 1 points 2 hours ago (1 children)

A non-aggression pact is not so much of an alliance. Nazis are the ones who broke it anyway. US armed/financed German military-industrial complex.

[–] zloubida@lemmy.world 5 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

It was not just a pact of non aggression. They attacked Poland together, and shared its territory. It was an alliance.

[–] dual_sport_dork@lemmy.world 3 points 1 hour ago

And the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact included (in secret) an agreement dividing Europe up into Nazi and Soviet halves preemptively.

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 3 points 2 hours ago (2 children)

The USSR first sought an alliance with Britain and France which was rejected, so they signed a non-aggression pact with Germany. Britain and France also signed a non-aggression pact with Germany, betraying one of their allies (Czechoslovakia) in exchange.

Should we take the fact that the US and USSR fought on the same side in WWII to say that they were always close friends and ideologically aligned, completely ignoring everything else? Because if anything that would be more reasonable to assert, because it never escalated to a hot war between the two.

[–] zloubida@lemmy.world 4 points 2 hours ago (1 children)

It wasn't just a pact of non-aggression. They divided Poland between themselves! France and Britain abandoned Czechoslovakia to avoid a war, USSR made an alliance with Nazi Germany to begin one.

And USSR and the US were on the same side because they were attacked by allied countries (Germany and Japan), they didn't chose one another. Stop your historical revisionism.

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 5 points 2 hours ago* (last edited 2 hours ago) (1 children)

I won't defend all of the USSR's actions, but it's absurd to suggest they were motivated by any sort of ideological alignment with the Nazis as opposed to self-interest and circumstance, in the same way that the US and USSR were motivated by a common interest rather than ideological alignment.

At basically every other moment in history, all across the globe, Marxists and fascists have been at each other's throats.

Nothing I've said is in the least bit "historical revisionism."

[–] zloubida@lemmy.world -1 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

Still, the USSR considered that an alliance with Nazi Germany was ideologically acceptable, even if they were not aligned. Because the only true ideology of USSR was to maintain its leaders in power, Marxism was just a facade. And that's will always ultimately the case with authoritarian governments.

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 5 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

Of course self-preservation was a priority for the USSR, as it is with any nation. Failure to achieve self-preservation would have meant being ruled by the Nazis.

Not sure how that in any way indicates that "Marxism was a facade."

[–] zloubida@lemmy.world -1 points 1 hour ago

Self-preservation is something else than making an offensive alliance with Nazis.

[–] DicJacobus@lemmy.world -3 points 1 hour ago* (last edited 1 hour ago) (1 children)

The Soviet Union was not entitled to an alliance with partners they were at war with only a decade prior. Britain and France were at war with the entity that would become the Soviet Union until 1922, There was no reason to Trust an alliance from a state that was ideologically opposed to them and wanted to destroy their way of life.

But the Victim complex from the Russians is a venerable beast, it was as relevant in 1925 as it was in 2025.

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 4 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

I'm not sure how it's relevant whether or not the Soviets were "entitled" to an alliance. What matters is the fact that they attempted to negotiate one there first.

[–] DicJacobus@lemmy.world -1 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

I can ask for a cup of sugar from the neighbor who I wrecked the car of last month. that neighbor is still within his reasonable rights to tell me to fuck off

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 3 points 1 hour ago

Again, not relevant. The point is not how Britain and France responded, the point is that the Soviets chose to go to them first.

[–] _cryptagion@lemmy.dbzer0.com -3 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

Which the Red Army made up for by murdering untold thousands of German citizens on the way to Berlin. Let's not pretend the Soviets weren't huge pieces of shit, the only reason they didn't start WW2 was because they were too busy shitting in buckets and starving to death.

The only people you idiot .ml users are fooling is yourselves, so I don't know why you bother with this revisionist bullshit.

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 3 points 52 minutes ago

revisionist bullshit.

Projection, as always.

[–] DicJacobus@lemmy.world -2 points 1 hour ago* (last edited 1 hour ago) (1 children)

The Soviet Union. Or more accuratley, RUSSIA was one of the two aggressors that Started the second world war.

Furthermore, they were not an ally, but a co-belligerent. Why else did the free world go from a period of direct confrontation and war in the 20s, to Cold war in the 30s. to temporary truce for 4 years from 1941 to 1945. right back to Cold war with Moscow from 1945 till 1991? (and then another temporary truce from 1991 until about 2008) right back to more or less being de facto at war with each other again since 2014

And you can't pin tens of millions of your own people, with Purges, Pogroms, Mentally handicapped suicidal orders. And general paranoid hysterical incompetnece. and blame those on the germans.

especially when large percentages of those people were colonized nations that wanted nothing to do with the Bolshevik Russian Imperial rule (Belarusians, Ukrainians, Poles, Balts etc and were just used like buffers and meat shields)

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 2 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

to temporary truce for 4 years from 1941 to 1945.

Do nations typically put aside differences to make temporary truces with co-belligerents of the nations they're at war with?

[–] DicJacobus@lemmy.world 0 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

I dont know. you tell me. Outside of the thunderdome in the middle east. whens the last time there was a major conflict with dozens of nations and more than two major ideoligies at play.

If you're asking in good faith. World War II's situation was largely unprecedented.
Unlike WWI Where Imperial Russia and France were allied. Soviet Russia was not allied with France, Britain, or western Europe.

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 2 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

The point is that the US put aside ideological differences because the USSR was fighting against the Nazis, they were not "co-belligerents."

[–] DicJacobus@lemmy.world 0 points 59 minutes ago (1 children)

for four years. a temporary matter. they went right back to being in a hostile competition for spheres of influence a few weeks or months after V-E day however.

[–] Objection@lemmy.ml 2 points 55 minutes ago

Well, that's twice as long as the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact lasted before the Nazis and Communists went right back to killing each other, not just in a "hostile competition" but in a large scale, total war that left tens of millions of people dead.