The reasoning underlying the annexation of Crimea is the same as the annexation of the 4 oblasts, seperatists in Ukraine that are predominantly Russian ethnically wished to secede from the new far-right Banderite regime. Between the annexation of Crimea and the annexation of the Donetsk and Luhansk People's Republics, there were attempts to resolve the crisis and secession war diplomatically via the Minsk Agreements, which Ukraine violated, leading to the modern Russo-Ukrainian War.

In the days leading up to the Russo-Ukrainian War, Kiev dramatically increased shelling of the Donbass region, prompting Donetsk and Lunansk to ask for Russian assistance, and here we are.

You still don't have any reasoning for why Russia is just a country driven to invade. There's no material basis to any of your assertions, just vibes. Again, this is Marvel-tier analysis, the "bad guys" invade because they are "bad guus," and the "good guys" should therefore fight to the last man for your entertainment even though the support for the war in the beginning has faded and desire for peace is rising.

[–] ExperiencedWinter@lemmy.world -3 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Right I just need to understand why Germany wants Poland, then it will all make sense

[–] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 3 points 2 weeks ago

I already answered earlier:

Hitler invaded Poland as a part of Lebensraum. Nazi Germany had a millitant structuring of society. Capital was in crisis, and post World War I, the inter-ally debts that were repaid to the US were pushed onto Germany in the form of reparations for damages during World War I, squeezing the economy and leaving Germany with little to no colonies, and the allies with all of them. As the loser of an inter-imperialist war while still requiring imperialism for capital to function, Hilter and the Nazis turned towards Europe. Nazi Germany was economically compelled for conquest, and promised conquest of a much larger portion of Europe publicly and repeatedly.

The Russian Federation, on the other hand, is what came after the dissolition of the Soviet Union. Russia has had a production-focused economy since the early 1900s, and hasn’t been imperialist since the Tsar. Russia does not have the huge amounts of financial capital necessary to compel imperialism into action, what it seeks from the Russo-Ukrainian War is a barrier to prevent full-scale land invasion from NATO through Ukraine. It doesn’t need conquest to sustain its economy, it doesn’t run on export of capital.

Are you reading my comments, or just rushing to land a non-sequitor for your own self-amusement?