this post was submitted on 03 Jul 2025
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[โ€“] IttihadChe@lemmy.ml 1 points 1 month ago (1 children)

It absolutely can be true, though slightly misworded.

  1. the initial usage had nothing to do with the derogatory term.

  2. upon realizing the relation to the derogatory term they adapted.

[โ€“] DarkMetatron@feddit.org 1 points 1 month ago

Yes, if you change the complete context and make major changes to the sentences, then both can be true. I am sorry that I made that mistake, I beg for forgiveness