this post was submitted on 14 May 2025
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[โ€“] FooBarrington@lemmy.world 1 points 3 months ago (1 children)

I bet there's some kind of crazy phenomenon that happens to the bases when you do that. And there's definitely an ^(pi * i) in there.

[โ€“] lime@feddit.nu 2 points 3 months ago* (last edited 3 months ago)

there's always the rather trippy bailey-borwein-plouffe formula that allows you to compute any decimal of pi without computing preceding decimals... but it only works in base 16.