this post was submitted on 28 Oct 2023
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[–] PunnyName@lemmy.world 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

To which authority? Because I know the milk conglomerate has been staunchly fighting for that very definition.

The lack of consent is more viable as a disqualifier.

[–] Turun@feddit.de 8 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I think the main distinction is lactose. And/or the proteins that are present in milk.

While oat milk and consorts can be used in a lot of use cases it's not a one to one replacement and it's dishonest to claim it is.

[–] PunnyName@lemmy.world 0 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

Depends on the uses. Food Theory did a great video about this very thing, covering preferred taste, consistency, price, protein / fat content, and bake-ability: https://youtu.be/df8FRfVtVNw

Lactose is simply the kind of sugar/ starch in the milk.

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