this post was submitted on 26 Oct 2023
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[โ€“] UlyssesT@hexbear.net 8 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

The way I've seen logiclords explain it, it's because male orgasms result in sperm ejaculation, and feeemale orgasms do not, therefore feeeemale orgasms have no such contributing factor to conception therefore they have no reason to exist. kubrick-stare

[โ€“] msage@programming.dev 1 points 1 year ago

And their doctor wife agrees with them