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You are swapping correlation and causation to some degree. A country does not become industrialized by people starting to have kids at a later age. Rather, people start getting kids when their circumstances allow it: in industrialized countries, you rely less on children to provide for you when old, as there hopefully are social systems in place or you can save up on your own. Downside is, without social systems you also have to provide for yourself at old age, meaning people need to build up more savings before they feel ready for the financial burden a child is for around 20 years.
In developing countries, children often get little support above bare necessities and start contributing to the household income at a much earlier age, even before hitting their teens.
There is a theory that supports this:
Declines in fertility have been observed after a country has become industrialized. Not only did fertility decline, but the children people were having were generally 'of higher quality'.
https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.3982/QE1751
This comes from Wiki, and this particular statement currently has 3 citations if anyone is interested: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unified_growth_theory