I considered deleting the post, but this seems more cowardly than just admitting I was wrong. But TIL something!
this post was submitted on 06 Jan 2024
288 points (86.2% liked)
memes
10449 readers
2394 users here now
Community rules
1. Be civil
No trolling, bigotry or other insulting / annoying behaviour
2. No politics
This is non-politics community. For political memes please go to !politicalmemes@lemmy.world
3. No recent reposts
Check for reposts when posting a meme, you can only repost after 1 month
4. No bots
No bots without the express approval of the mods or the admins
5. No Spam/Ads
No advertisements or spam. This is an instance rule and the only way to live.
Sister communities
- !tenforward@lemmy.world : Star Trek memes, chat and shitposts
- !lemmyshitpost@lemmy.world : Lemmy Shitposts, anything and everything goes.
- !linuxmemes@lemmy.world : Linux themed memes
- !comicstrips@lemmy.world : for those who love comic stories.
founded 1 year ago
MODERATORS
you are viewing a single comment's thread
view the rest of the comments
view the rest of the comments
You mean integers and real numbers between 0 and 1.
All real numbers would start at 0, 0.1, 0.001, 0.0001.... (a 1:1 match with the set between 0 and 1) all the way to 1, 1.1, 1.01.... Etc.
no, there aren't enough integers to map onto the interval (0,1).
probably the most famous proof for this is Cantor's diagonalisation argument. though as it usually shows how the cardinality of the naturals is small than this interval, you'll also need to prove that the cardinality of the integers is the same as that of the naturals too (which is usually seen when you go about constructing the set of integers to begin with)
No, ey mean real numbers and real numbers. Any interval of real numbers will have enough numbers to be equivalent to any other (infinite ones included)